Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 03:47
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What are some common examples of human hypocrisy?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Can you explain the meaning of "mint condition" in relation to antiques or collectibles?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.